IMO 1981 · Problem 4

(a) For which values of \(n > 2\) is there a set of \(n\) consecutive positive integers such that the largest number in the set is a divisor of the least common multiple of the remaining \(n - 1\) numbers?

(b) For which values of \(n > 2\) is there exactly one set having the stated property?

Official text of the problem. Official problem paper (PDF)

Answer

(a) All integers \(n\ge 4\).

(b) Only \(n=4\). The unique set is \(\{3,4,5,6\}\).

Solution

Write the set as \[ \{m-n+1,m-n+2,\ldots,m\},\qquad m\ge n, \] and put \[ L=\operatorname{lcm}(1,2,\ldots,n-1). \]

We first prove that the set has the required property if and only if \(m\mid L\).

Suppose that \[ m\mid\operatorname{lcm}(m-n+1,\ldots,m-1). \] Let \(p^e\) be the highest power of any prime \(p\) dividing \(m\). Since \(p^e\) divides this least common multiple, it divides some \(m-j\), where \(1\le j\le n-1\). It also divides \(m\), so it divides \(j\). Consequently \(p^e\mid L\). This holds for every prime divisor of \(m\), proving \(m\mid L\).

Conversely, suppose \(m\mid L\). Every highest prime power \(p^e\) dividing \(m\) then satisfies \(p^e\le n-1\): indeed, a prime power dividing \(L\) must divide one of \(1,\ldots,n-1\). Thus \(m-p^e\) belongs to the set of preceding numbers and is divisible by \(p^e\). Their least common multiple therefore contains every prime power required to be divisible by \(m\). This proves the equivalence.

Hence the desired sets correspond exactly to the divisors \(m\) of \(L\) satisfying \(m\ge n\).

For \(n=3\), we have \(L=2\), which has no divisor at least \(3\). There is no suitable set.

For \(n=4\), we have \(L=6\), whose only divisor at least \(4\) is \(6\). Thus there is exactly one suitable set, namely \(\{3,4,5,6\}\).

Finally, let \(n\ge5\). Since \(n-1\) and \(n-2\) are relatively prime, \[ d=(n-1)(n-2)\mid L. \] The integer \(d\) is even, so both \(d\) and \(d/2\) are distinct divisors of \(L\). Moreover, \[ \frac d2-n =\frac{n(n-5)+2}{2}>0. \] Thus both divisors are at least \(n\), and each gives a suitable set. Consequently, for every \(n\ge5\) there are at least two such sets.

This proves both answers.

The solution was checked against John Scholes' IMO solution archive (Kalva).