IMO 1963 · Problem 3

In an \(n\)-gon all of whose interior angles are equal, the lengths of consecutive sides satisfy the relation \[ a_1\ge a_2\ge\cdots\ge a_n. \] Prove that \(a_1=a_2=\cdots=a_n\).

Official text of the problem. Official problem paper (PDF)

Solution

The sum of the interior angles is \((n-2)\pi\), so each interior angle equals \((n-2)\pi/n<\pi\). Thus the polygon is convex, and consecutive directed sides turn through the angle \(2\pi/n\).

Identify the plane with the complex plane, choosing its orientation so that the sides in the given order turn counterclockwise, and making the first side point along the positive real axis. Put \[ z=e^{2\pi i/n}. \] The directed sides are then represented by \[ a_1,\ a_2z,\ \ldots,\ a_nz^{n-1}. \] Since the polygon closes, \[ a_1+a_2z+\cdots+a_nz^{n-1}=0. \] Multiplying by \(1-z\) and using \(z^n=1\), we obtain \[ a_1-a_n=\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}(a_k-a_{k+1})z^k. \] On the other hand, \[ a_1-a_n=\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}(a_k-a_{k+1}). \] Subtracting the real parts gives \[ \sum_{k=1}^{n-1}(a_k-a_{k+1}) \left(1-\cos\frac{2\pi k}{n}\right)=0. \]

For every \(1\le k\le n-1\), the first factor is nonnegative by hypothesis, while the second is strictly positive because \(0<2\pi k/n<2\pi\). Hence every term must vanish, giving \[ a_k-a_{k+1}=0\qquad(1\le k\le n-1). \] Therefore \(a_1=a_2=\cdots=a_n\), as required.

The solution was checked against John Scholes' IMO solution archive (Kalva).